Why? There weren't ever Poor cultures in 1e even though the Standard of Living level already existed, and the only Rich culture were Dwarves, which are only Prosperous in 2e.1) Presumably there *will* be Rich and Poor cultures.
Why? There weren't ever Poor cultures in 1e even though the Standard of Living level already existed, and the only Rich culture were Dwarves, which are only Prosperous in 2e.1) Presumably there *will* be Rich and Poor cultures.